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[personal profile] conuly
Fun!

I'm going to be sick. There's no more justification for being prejudicided against speakers of a non-Standard dialect than to be prejudiced against practicioners of a minority religion, but here it comes again! And yet, when I point out that it doesn't mean that this woman is retarded, I get yelled at, and words get put in my mouth. Because, of course, it's so much easier to contest what I didn't say than what I actually *did* say.

I need to hie me to Jenn's. I'll talk later. Djusk' a.

Date: 2004-12-27 08:50 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] threnody.livejournal.com
1) Yes, children master *that which they are taught at home* by the time they go to school. That is not always the correct way, which is why grammar is taught in schools in the first place.

2) Double negatives and other things along the same line were common among people who could not afford or who were otherwise unable to attend school. It doesn't mean they were right.

3) All dialects are a corruption. English in it's purest form is probably what you'd find on legal forms. But, all dialects that I know of still adhere to a standard grammar.

4) If they didn't all adhere to the same basic rules, groups would change rules here and there, and eventually what we'd have would be ten million dialects so very different that one wouldn't be able to understand another. Standardised English is what makes me be able to speak to any other English speaker in the world with a minimum of issues. I'm not sure how much more explanation is needed for this to make sense.

Date: 2004-12-28 05:01 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marrog.livejournal.com
Double negatives and other things along the same line were common among people who could not afford or who were otherwise unable to attend school. It doesn't mean they were right.

No, it was common among the educated class. All classes, in fact. That's why it was part of the standard.

This is wrong. You have a strong-ish argument. Why ruin it by making things up?

Date: 2004-12-28 05:13 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marrog.livejournal.com
Sorry, I'm not familiar with any online linguistic sources. I know that the double negative was an innovation in (probably) 17th Century English, among the working classes in London. It wasn't particularly prevalent though until the 19th century in the central London working class dialect (ie Cockney).

Of course as we all know, today's working class accent is tomorrow's SE, so there's every chance that with the advent of Estuary English, the double negative will slowly become more and more acceptable until it begins to be written into BBC newsreels.

That doesn't mean we have to sit back and just take it.

Date: 2004-12-28 07:20 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marrog.livejournal.com
The implication I get here is that you have synaesthesia.

Is this "true" or are you joking?

A little off-topic perhaps, but...

Date: 2004-12-28 06:00 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marrog.livejournal.com
???

I cannot believe you just did that. You have, on no less than three occasions, stated as fact that the double negative was once part of Standard English. This is wrong, wrong wrong, and then you just pass it off as a mix up? How can you demand sources and citations from other people when you don't actually check your own before saying something so fundimental to your argument?

Zero points.
From: [identity profile] ratmist.livejournal.com
If you really wanted to learn, you could've picked up beautiful pearls of wisdom from Threnody's above posts. Instead, you pontificated and ignored the points of her posts completely. No wonder she removed you from her friends list. I find it sadly ironic.
From: [identity profile] marrog.livejournal.com
Well, considering the perfunctory fobbing off she got from you to her long, involved, meaty and well-placed argument on your most recent entry, I think perhaps you should look for yourself rather than burdening her further to waste time on someone so clearly incapable of listening to anyone other than her own voice.

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