Jun. 10th, 2004

conuly: (Default)
This is a hypothetical question regarding rape.

What I love is the comments. One person managed to go from "I don't believe anybody can EVER be in a situation where they aren't injured but can't move" to "I don't care if that's true, if it can't be proven in court, it's not rape" without ever actually changing her position.

Years ago, if you were raped by your husband, you couldn't prosecute. He was your husband, ergo he had consent. The law has now changed, of course. Does that mean all those women whose husbands forced sex on them weren't raped because they couldn't prove that they hadn't consented?

The law is not the best place to go for a definition of rape. There's always going to be some situation that can NEVER be proven in court. That doesn't mean that it didn't happen in the world, just that there's no way for you to prove it.

Stupid little expletive profanity tiny little minds.

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conuly

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